2026中考英语试题---实战演练

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2026中考英语试题---实战演练

2025-2026学年中考英语模拟题

    (时间:120分钟; 满分150分)

卷(选择题 共80分)

第一部分听力(共25小题;1-20每题1分,21-25每题2分,满分30分)

(一)听句子,选择适当的应答语。每个句子读两遍。

( ) 1.A.They're tigers.    B.I don't like dogs.      C.Giraffes.

( ) 2.A.Thanks a lot.     B.I'm really tired.       C.I'm not feeling well.

( ) 3.A.I'm sorry to hear that.   B.What's that?     C.I'm afraid not.

( ) 4.A.Is that so?        B.OK, I will.           C.YesI think so.

( ) 5.A.It's exciting!      B.What a pity!          C.Not at all.

二、听五段对话,选择正确答案。每段对话读两遍。

( ) 6. How far is the Children’s Museum?

A.Five minutes' walk.

B.Fifteen meters away.

C.Fifteen minutes' walk.

( ) 7.What can we do to improve the environment?

A.Use water as much as possible.

B.Stop driving cars.

C.Take buses more.

( ) 8.What was wrong with Nick?

A.He had a cold.

B. He had a fever.

C.He had a cough.

( ) 9. How did the girl like the movie last night?

A.Boring. B.Interesting.          C.Scary.

( ) 10.What kind of music does Mike like?

A.Rock music. B.Light music.        C.Country music.

三、听两段长对话,选择正确答案。每段对话读两遍。

听第一段对话,回答第1113小题。

( ) 1l.What are the two speakers talking about?

A.Their business plans.

B.Their travel plans.

C.Their weekend plans

( ) 12.What will the man probably do on Saturday morning?

A.He will probably go shopping.

B.He will probably stay at home.

C.He will probably see a movie.

( ) 13. Who is coming to see the woman on the weekend?

A.Her sister.

B.Her cousin.

C.Her grandfather.

听第二段对话,回答第1416小题。

( ) 14.What kind of music does the boy write?

A.Country music.

B.Pop music.

C.Folk music.

( ) 15.Where did they give concerts?

A.In theaters.B. In parks.         C.In school.

( ) 16. How long has the boy played the piano?

A.For five years.

B.For ten years.

C.For fifteen years.

四、听短文,回答下面四个问题,选择正确答案。短文读两遍。

( ) 17. How old was the writer when he began to go to school?

A.He was six years old.

B. He was nine years old.

C.He was seven years old.

( ) 18. Why couldn't the writer see anything

A.Because the classroom was too dark.

B.Because the classroom was too small.

C.Because the windows were too high.

( ) 19.Why did the boy next to the writerbegin to cry?

A.Because he wanted his father.

B.Because he didn't want to stay there.

C.Because he wanted to have breakfast.

( ) 20.Who stopped the little boy crying?

A.The writer.B.His mother.C.The teacher.

五、听短文填表格。根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺信息,每空一词。短文读三遍。

Name

Activities

Han Mei

She helped the Forest Center build new hiking paths in the 21.__________ mountainShe wanted to letthepeople around

know the 22.__________ of theenvironment.

Li Dong

He23.__________ with Special House Program.And he helped people and also had a chanceto learn how to build 24.__________.

Li Xuejuan

She taught kids to read. She wanted the kids to get 25.________ from reading books.

第二部分完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)

阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从每小题所给的ABC三个选项中,选出能填入短文相应空白处的最佳选项。

Sometimes, the efforts you put in may not pay off right away. Don’t get    1   —it’s just a small problem! When you notice this sign in life, just change your way and keep going. That’s also what you should do in real life too. In your school days and daily life, you may face many ____2_____, but you will always manage to find a way to beat them. 

Life is not always full of smooth paths. There will be difficulties and joy, tough days and happy times. If you don’t prepare yourself well, a big difficulty can make you    3   . However, going through life with no difficulties at all can become    4   . So, a difficulty can teach you useful things and help you grow. 

To keep trying or to give up? In your life there will be times when you have to make a    5   . You may want to improve your grades, so you choose to    6    one of your favorites after-school activities that you’ve kept for a long time. Think again! Before stopping the painting club or your sports training, you should think how you could balance your time between schoolwork and activities. In fact, it’s just a question of how to use your time    7   .

Whatever you do in life, remember to stay calm. You don’t have to rush through everything. Sometimes rushing makes life    8   . It’s often better to take action    9    thinking carefully. So, think first and then act! There’s really no need to_____10____. You don’t have to experience everything before you’re 20!

26. A. cheerfulB. worriedC. forgetful

27. A. challengesB. chancesC. changes

28. A. succeedB. feel downC. improve

29. A. boringB. excitingC. useful

30. A. promiseB. planC. choice

31. A. give upB. pick upC. take up

32. A. quicklyB. carelesslyC.wisely

33. A. stressfulB. sadC. enjoyable

34. A. afterB. whenC. before

35. A. followB. relax C. hurry

第三部分阅读理解(共两节,20小题;每题2分,共40分) 

第一节阅读下面四篇短文,根据内容,从题中所给的ABCD四个选项中,选出最佳答案。

A

In early January 2026, a warm video asking for help from Hechuan(合川), Chongqing, got people’s attention across the country. An internet user called “Daidai” needed help to kill her family’s year-end pig. She said she would treat people to a traditional Pao Zhu Tang meal in return. The video soon got more than 180,000 likes and was shared 140,000 times. Thousands of people from all over China went to her village on their own.

Pao Zhu Tang is an old custom with hundreds of years of history in Southwest China’s countryside. It is more than just a meal—it is an important part of the community. In the past, neighbors would get together to help kill the pig. The family would thank them with a big feast made from the fresh pork. This shows the spirit of helping each other and celebrating together. The video became so popular because many city people miss the real “Nianwei” (the special warmth and feeling of the Lunar New Year). Today, people’s lives are full of digital screens. This traditional gathering lets people feel close to each other and find comfort in their culture.

Local officials noticed this and made good use of the opportunity. They made sure everything went smoothly, added shows of intangible cultural heritage to the event, and set up the “Pao Zhu Tang Folk Culture Festival” officially. This smart move turned a short internet trend into a long-lasting way to develop cultural tourism.

In the end, this event shows that digital platforms can give new life to old customs. It connects city and countryside in China, helps rural areas develop, and proves that living traditions—when used in a new way—are still important and lively in today’s society.

36.Why did thousands of people go to Daidai’s village voluntarily?

A. They wanted to get some fresh pork for free.

B. They hoped to become internet-famous by joining the event.

C. They were asked to go there by local officials.

D. They were interested in the traditional Pao Zhu Tang meal and the festival spirit.

37.Why does the traditional Pao Zhu Tang custom become popular again through the internet?

A. Because it provides a chance for people to enjoy delicious food.

B. Because it helps people in cities find a job in the countryside.

C. Because it fills the gap of people’s longing for real human connection in the digital age.

D. Because it is the only way to celebrate the Lunar New Year in Southwest China.

38.What is the main idea of the passage?

A. To talk about the long value of helping each other

B. To show how special the real “Nianwei” is

C. To tell how the folk culture festival was created

D. To show how digital platforms make old customs popular again

39.What is the writer's feeling about the “Pao Zhu Tang” event?

A. Critical B. Favorable        C. Indifferent        D. Doubtful

B

When someone's heart suddenly stops,we can use an AED to save him or her. It can be found in public places and it is easy to use. Turn it on and follow the voice instructions. Here are some key steps

1.Place one pad onto the upper-right chest(胸堂).Place the other onto the lower-left chest.

2.Connect the pads to the AED.

3.Don't touch the patient! Wait for the result of the examination.

4.Press the button when a shock is advised.

5.Give CPR(心肺复苏)if needed.

Remember:It’s best to treat the patient within the “ Golden4 Minutes”! Time matters! If an AED is not around,send someone to get one and give CPR while waiting, Don't forget to call 120.

40.When is an AED used?

A.When someone's heart suddenly stops. B.When someone has a headache.

C.When someone's back suddenly hurts. D.When someone has a toothache.

41.Where should the pads be placed on the patient?

42.What's the golden time to use an AED?

A.The first 4 minutes. B.The first 5minutes.

C.The first 6 minutes. D.The first 7 minutes.

C

Tea has long been a popular drink in China. Chinese people love different kinds of tea.Among them,black tea and white tea from Fujiangreen tea from Zhejiang and Anhui,and dark tea from Yunnan are some of the favorites.

In the Song Dynasty(960-1279), tea culture reached new heights.

The beauty of the Song tea came alive through“dian cha”.Powdered(粉状的) tea was whisked(搅打)with water into soft“clouds”.White teawas often used to make the “clouds” as white as the moonlight. Tea artists used clean water to draw pictures on them with a teaspoon. The way of serving dian cha became a living art. It later influenced Japanese tea

culture. Today,more young people are learning and passing it on.

Yunnan’s dark tea, especially Pu'er, got famous because of the Ancient Tea Horse Road. And it won popularity around the world. In 1976,Frenchman Fred Kempler found a new kind of Pu'er from Yunnan in a Hong Kong shop.In the same year,he visited Yunnan,bought nearly

two tons, and began to sell “Yunnan Tuocha”in Europe. Since 1986,Yunnan’s Pu'er tuo cha has got many prizes at food expos(博览会)in France, America and other countries. Today you can see an old Australian lady holding a cup of tea of sun dried Pu’er,though she still enjoys her

English-style black tea with milk and sugar.Tea is a bridge of friendship among nations and peoples.

Tea is enjoyed timelessly from ancient to modern times. Each cup of dian cha, white as the moonlight,turned tea into art,and art into eternity(永恒).Tea is also loved globally from the east to the west. Each cup of Pu’erwith the smell of sunshineturns tea into friendshipand friendship into a shared future.

43.What kind of tea was often used for dian cha according to the passage

A.Black lea. B.Green lea.       C.Dark lea.     D.White lea.

44.When did Fred Kempler begin to sell “Yunnan Tuocha”in Europe?

A.In 1986. B.In 1976.         C.In 1279.      D.In960.

45.Which sentence uses “globally”with the same meaning as the underlined word?

Globally /ˈɡləʊbəli/ adv. ①全球地 全面地 总体而言,整体地

A.Globally, our class did well in the English test.

B.The Olympic Games bring people together globally.

C.The story is globally interesting though some parts are slow.

D.This math question needs you lo consider the numbers globally

46.What is the best title for the passage?

A.More Than a Drink B.Tea Trade in China

C.Art in a Tea Cup D.Journey of Yunnan Tea

D

Have you ever imagined a robot washing your hair for you? This is not a science fiction anymore thanks to the invention of AI hair washing machines. Many AI hair washing stores have been opened in several areas in Shenzhen, such as Nanshan, Futian and Longhua. It has become a hot topic on the Internet and more such stores are on the way.

AI hair washing is popular in Shenzhen, but it is not very expensive. With just 9.9 yuan, you can experience it. After a scalp (头皮) check, all you need to do is to lie down on a bed and put your head into the machine. Then, a worker will decide on the setting according to your hair length and your scalp type. After that, press the start key and the machine will operate, using infrared technology (红外技术) to send water to the exact right places. It can even change water temperature by itself. However, it doesn’t mean that no human workers are required. Workers still need to help with things like preparing the towels and drying the hair.

Curious about the new technology, many people have tried this new way of hair washing. However, people have made different comments about this. Some say, “It works better than I thought and my hair is cleaner than I expected.” However, others comment, “The machine is not good enough, because it can’t get to my itchy (发痒的) spots correctly.”

New things need time. I believe that the new machine will become better and make our lives more convenient in the future.

47. How did the writer introduce the topic in Paragraph 1?

A. By raising a question.B. By telling his stories.

C. By describing a scene.D. By giving an example.

48. What does the underlined part “are on the way” probably mean?

A. Stay unknown.B. Keep appearing.C. Become outdated.D. Remain special.

49. Why do many people try the AI hair washing service?

A. Because it can dry their hair by itself.

B. Because it’s better than the traditional way.

C. Because there are no other hair washing stores.

D. Because they have an interest in the new technology.

50. What is the best title for the passage?

A. The development of AI hair washing technology

B. Workers’ important role in AI hair washing stores

C. AI hair washing: new service popular in Shenzhen

D. Infrared technology: the secret of AI hair washing

第二节请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后根据短文内容从下面方框内的五个选项中选择五个还原到文中,使短文通顺、连贯、意思完整。

Long ago, in ancient Chinapeople made a special thing called the incense burner(香炉).The incense burner was used for burning incense.Incense burners are different in size,shape

51._______________________.

52._______________________By the Warring StatesPeriod,incense burner designs had become better than before.People producedBronze(铜)Incense Burner with Phoenix Birds Holding Rings.

During the Han Dynasty,incense burnerswidely spreadand ceramic(陶瓷)incense burners showed up. Boshan Lu is one of themost famous incense burners from the Han Dynasty. 53._______________________.

In the Tang Dynasty,incense burners had different shapes-round, square,and even like animals!Also small incense bags were requireso that people could put them in their beds,

Skills of working with bronze had improved greatly during the Ming Dynasty. The Xuande IncenseBurner was a new kind of incense burner at that time.54._______________________.It wasmade from brass(黄铜) that was offered as the gift bythe country, so it was valuable.

Today,old incense burners are shown in manymuseums.People go there to visitthem. 55._______________________. Some people use them whenthey want to relax,because they canmake the airsmell good and help people feel calm.

阅读短文,把A~E五个句子填入文中空缺处,使短文内容完整。

A.No one knows for sure when incense burners firstappeared

B. These people love looking at the designs andthinking about the past.

C.and materialand are used inmany cultures.

D.Itshowsclassic Chinese mountain view

E.People felt proud of that.

卷(非选择题 共70分)

第四部分书面表达(共三节)

第一节词汇运用(共两题,满分30分)

(一)根据首字母、音标或汉语提示完成单词。(共5小题;每小题2分,共10分)

56.Chen YuJie won the women's 100-meter final with a great time of 11.10seconds at the 15th National Gamesher success was not an a__________.

57.Deepfake technology(深度伪造技术) has become more w__________ used in recent years.

58.Students are thirsty for knowledge because it'll give them wings to a__________ their dreams.

59.If you want to keep _______(健康),going to early and getting up early is highly recommended.

60. C_________ with traditional bicyclesshared bikes are more convenient for short trips in the city.

(二)综合填空(共10小题;每小题2分,满分20分)

根据短文内容,用方框中所给词语的适当形式填空,使文章通顺、完整。(每词限用一次)

kindtakewithpressbecomeimportantthemcelebratethatuse

“Love You, Old Self” — this simple sentence has become a warm thing and a popular phrase among young people in China. When they post photos of home-cooked food or morning coffee61._________ this words, they turn small daily things into a shared way of being kind to themselves. People say it is one of the 62._________ trends, and it touches many people deeply.

It is more than just a saying. It makes the unclear idea of 63._________ care of oneself become real. It gives comfort when people feel stressed and 64._________ small happy moments. The key is to call oneself  “Old Self” — a friendly name65._________ lets people step back and talk to themselves kindly, just as they would to a close friend.

This trend is popular for a reason. Today’s young people face a lot of 66._________, such as non-stop exams and strong competition for university places and jobs. For example, a high school student in Beijing writes “Love You, Old Self” in her notebook to calm down after a hard exam. In such situations, being gently kind to oneself has 67._________ an important way to deal with pressure.

68._________, this is not an excuse to avoid difficulties. Instead, it helps people build more courage to get through hard times. To say “Love You, Old Self” means to recognize one’s own efforts, to allow oneself to rest when needed, and thus find a healthy balance. It is a cheap but 69._________ way to keep emotions stable. It also changes where strength comes from — from others’ praise to believing in oneself.

In the end, by being kind to 70._________, young people are better able to deal with outside pressure. This gentle and steady power helps them find inner peace and shows a true fact: to really care for others, you must first be kind to yourself.

第二节阅读表达(共5小题,每小题3分,满分15分)

阅读下面的短文,并根据文章后的要求答题。

Recently, dazi socializing has become a new favorite thing to do among young people.It's a newway to connect with others. Unlike close friends who need to keep in close contact,a dazi is a moretemporary(临时的)socialpartner.

The term“dazi” comes from the Shanghai dialect(方言).It referred to “card-playing partners”atfirst. Later, the term developed a broader meaning partners74.①__________ take part in certain activities togetherare commonly called “dazi”. Nowadays,many young people on social media platforms look for differenttypes of partners, like travel dazi, study dazi and fitness(健身) dazi.

Zhouzhou,a girl from Shenzhen, was born in the 2000s. For last year’s May Day holiday, sheplanned to travel but couldn’t find an ideal partner in her social circle. 74.__________she chose a collegestudent studying in Changsha, Hunan Province, as a travel dazi for the trip.

Zhouzhou said she first told her travel dazi about a few scenic spots that she wanted to visit,and then her travel dazi made a plan that met her expectations. Although the conversation between the two was not very deep, Zhouzhou said she felt that her travel dazi’s personality was quite similar74.__________ her own.The dazi planned the trip very carefully and they had a great trip together.“Friends may be the people closest to you,but it's better to find like-minded dazi to take part in some activities together.” Zhouzhou said.

Dazi culture doesn't come without risks. Usually,a dazi may be more suitable for activities in safe environments and for short periods of time. Remember safety is always first when looking for a dazi.

71.Among whom has dazi socializing become a new favorite thing to do recently?no more than 3 words)

_________________________________________________________________

72.How many kinds of dazi are mentioned?no more than 2 words)

_________________________________________________________________

73.What's the most important thing when you look for a dazi to travel?no more than 2 words

_________________________________________________________________

74.Fill in each blank in the passage with a proper word.

①__________    __________    __________

75.请将文中画线的句子翻译成汉语。

_________________________________________________________________

76.Would you like to look for a Dazi to travel when you plan to travelWhy

_________________________________________________________________

第三节写作(共1题,满分25分)

77. 根据《教育强国建设规划纲要》中小学每天综合体育活动不低于2小时的要求,结合2025年教育部等五部门《关于实施学生体质强健计划的意见》,以及2026年春季学期健康第一工作部署精神,严禁挤占体育课和课间活动。2026年春季学期,中小学已落实每天体育课2小时,课间15分钟的方案。请你以The Importance of Daily Sports Activity谈谈该举措对于中小学生的意义。

要求:1. 词数:80-100词;

2. 必须包含提示中所有内容,并适当发挥,以使行文连贯;

3. 文中不允许出现与考生本人相关的真实姓名和校名等信息。

The Importance of Daily Sports Activity

____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

答案 

第一部听力(1-20每小题1分,21-25每小题2分,共30分)

1--5CAABB  6--10CCAAB   11--15 CACBC   16--20 BACBC

21.mountains   22.importance  23.volunteered   24.houses   25.pleasure

第二部分完形填空(每小题1分,共10

26--30B A B A C   31--35 A C A A C

第二部阅读理解(每小题2分,共40

36-39 DBCDB40--42ADA   43—46DBBA    47—50 ABDC

51--55CADEB

第三部书面表达

第一节词汇运用

单词拼写(每小题2分,共10分)

56.accident 57.widely  58.achieve  59.healthy/fit  60.Compared

综合填空(每小题2分,共20分)

61.with       62.kindest     63.taking       64.celebrates     65.that

66.pressure 67.become    68.importantly   69.useful    70.themselves

阅读表达(每小题3分,共15

71. Among young people.

72. Three.

73.The safety.

74.whofinallyto

75.朋友或许是你最亲近的人,但最好还是找志同道合的搭子一起参加一些活动。

76.开放性试题,言之有理即可。

EgYesId love to.  Because I think it's very interesting and it can give us more chances to make new friends.

NoIm afraid I can't. Because I think it's not safe to travel with a stranger especially in the strange places. 

写作

写作范文(本小题25分)

The Importance of Daily Sports Activity

To build a strong educational country, our school carries out the plan of 2-hour PE and 15-minute break every day. This action is really meaningful.

Firstly, it builds up our bodies and keeps us away from illness. Secondly, it helps us relax and reduce stress, making us study more efficiently. Besides, it develops good exercise habits and improves team spirit.

In short, putting health first is necessary. This policy helps us grow healthily and happily.评分说明

1.评分原则

1)本题总分为25分,按5个档次给分。

2)评分时,先根据学生写作的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。

3)评分时,应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的连贯性。

4)拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。

5)如果书写较差,以致影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。

2.各档次的赋分区间和要求

第一档(21—25分)很好地完成了试题规定的任务。

覆盖所有内容要点;应用了较丰富的语法结构和词汇;用词准确、句子通顺、行文连贯、表达清楚,没有或基本没有语言错误;书写工整;字数符合要求。完全达到了预期的写作目的。

第二档(16—20分)较好地完成了试题规定的任务。

虽漏掉一、二个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容;应用的语言结构和词汇虽不太丰富,但能满足任务的要求;句子较通顺、表达较清楚;有少量语言错误;书写工整;字数基本符合要求。达到了预期的写作目的。

第三档(11—15分)基本完成了试题规定的任务。

虽漏掉部分内容,但基本体现写作要点;应用的语言结构单一;句子不够通顺,行文不够连贯;语言错误较多;书写不够规范,字数不足。整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。

第四档(6—10分)未恰当完成试题规定的任务。

漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容;应用的语言结构单一且不规范;句子不通顺,行文不连贯;语言错误多;书写潦草,字数不足50。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。

第五档(0—5分)未完成试题规定的任务。

未理解试题要求,明显遗漏大部分要点,写了一些无关内容;应用的语言结构单一且不规范;句子不通顺,行文不连贯;语言错误多;书写潦草,字数严重不足。信息未能传达给读者。

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