2026唐山中考一模英语试卷

第一部分 听力（共四节，满分 30 分）

第一节 听句子，选择最佳答语（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）

1.A. Never mind. B. Good job. C. No problem.

2.A. Very beautiful. B. Not yet. C. In Tangshan.

3.A. It was far. B. It was expensive. C. It was wonderful.

4.A. In January. B. A basketball. C. At a restaurant.

5.A. Good idea. B. Me too. C. Best wishes.

第二节 听对话和问题，选择正确答案（共 13 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 13分）

6.Where are the speakers? 

7.What will the weather be like tomorrow? 

8.Where are they going on Sunday? 

A. To the supermarket. B. To the bank. C. To the cinema.

9.How will they go there? 

A. By bus. B. On foot. C. By bike.

10.What was wrong with Peter last night? 

A. He had a toothache. B. He had a headache. C. He had a stomachache.

11.How often should Peter take the medicine? 

A. Once a day. B. Twice a day. C. Three times a day.

12.What's the possible relationship between the two speakers? 

A. Teacher and student. B. Doctor and patient. C. Mother and son.

13.When does the boy get up? 

A. At 6:30. B. At 6:40. C. At 6:55.

14.What club does the girl like best? 

A. The Jogging Club. B. The Football Club. C. The Book Club.

15.Why does the boy join the clubs? 

A. To have fun. B. To make friends. C. To improve skills.

16.When will Grandparents visit them? 

A. This Monday. B. This Friday. C. This Sunday.

17.What did the woman buy yesterday? 

A. Some flowers. B. A house. C. A clock.

18.Who likes flowers very much? 

A. Grandma. B. Bob. C. Grandpa.

第三节 听短文和问题，选择正确答案（共 7 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 7 分）

19.What does Lucy's mum do at home for the family? 

A. Cook nice meals. B. Wash the clothes. C. Clean the rooms.

20.What is Lucy's mum? 

A. A cook. B. A nurse. C. A doctor.

21.Why do patients like Lucy's mum? 

A. She is honest. B. She is creative. C. She is responsible.

22.How many class rules are there? 

A. Three. B. Four. C. Five.

23.What is the third class rule? A. Be polite to teachers. B. Be on time for school. C. Listen to teachers carefully.

24.Where can students see the class rules? 

A. On the wall. B. On the board. C. On the door.

25.Who can students tell if they have suggestions? 

A. Their parent. B. Their teacher. C. Their class leader.

第四节 听短文填空（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）

第二部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 25 分）

第一节 完形填空（共 10 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10分）

阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。

Last term, our teacher introduced a project-based learning activity. Each group was asked to find a way to reduce 31__________at school, not just clean it up.

At first, we felt a bit lost. We discussed several 32__________, such as cutting down food waste or using both sides of paper, but none of them seemed good enough. While thinking about the problem, we began to observe the rubbish bins around the school 33__________. We noticed that the bins were 34__________ mixed waste—used paper, plastic bottles, and food waste all thrown together. Because everything was mixed, many recyclable materials could not be 35__________ and were treated as rubbish. We realized that if students learned to sort waste, much of it could be recycled. In this way, we could truly reduce the waste.

With this goal in mind, we took action. First, we searched online for 36__________ about waste sorting. Then we designed posters to show how to sort waste in a 37__________ way. After that, we explained our idea to the headteacher and suggested that the school provide recycling bins. She 38__________, and soon new bins were placed in each hallway. During breaks, we stood beside the bins to 39__________ students to throw rubbish into the right ones. As time went by, more students developed the 40__________ of sorting rubbish. Now recyclable materials are reused, and food waste is turned into compost. Though our action seems small, it is a meaningful step toward a greener school.

31.A. waste B. stress C. noise D. pain

32.A. books B. games C. ideas D. events

33.A. bravely B. lazily C. heavily D. carefully

34.A. known as B. connected to C. filled with D. made of

35.A. received B. reused C. changed D. invented

36.A. information B. pleasure C. meaning D. success

37.A. strange B. serious C. polite D. proper

38.A. agreed B. waited C. doubted D. argued

39.A. expect B. guide C. refuse D. wish

40.A. plan B. product C. talent D. habit

第二节 短文填空（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15分）

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或填入括号内单词的正确形式。

Today, I am happy to share one of my favorite traditional arts—paper-cutting.

Paper-cutting is 41__________ traditional Chinese art form with a history of more than two thousand years. During the Chinese New Year, people often use red paper to create beautiful designs and put them 42__________ windows and doors. They hope they will bring good luck 43__________ happiness in the coming year.

When I was a child, I often 44__________ (watch) my grandmother turn pieces of red paper into flowers, trees, people, and almost anything else you could imagine. It seemed as if she had magic 45__________ (hand). Her works were 46__________ (live) and beautiful. Later, she began to teach me how 47__________ (make) different kinds of paper-cuts. After several weeks of practice, I made great progress.

Last term, 48__________ (we) school held a paper-cutting show. Among all the competitors, my work was chosen as the 49__________ (good). It was a special design called "Zhubaoping'an", which symbolizes a safe and 50__________ (health) life.

Now, I 51__________ (consider) as a "master" of paper-cutting at school. I have even started a paper-cutting club. We meet every Wednesday afternoon to create new works together, and so far, we 52__________ (finish) about 200 paper-cuts. Next week, we 53__________ (invite) my grandmother to visit us. She will 54__________ (patient) show her skills and share the stories behind her creations.

Paper-cutting is a symbol of Chinese culture, and I hope to share its beauty 55__________ more people. I truly enjoy it, and I'll keep on creating more works and let this traditional art shine in the world.

第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分 40 分）

第一节 阅读理解（共 15 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 30分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。

A

We love hearing from our readers! Fifth grade students in North Carolina added some new places to our World's Greatest Places list. Read a few here.

The Great Wall of China is a fantastic choice. It's one of the Seven Wonders of the World. It is such a beautiful building, and walking on it feels like touching history. ——Diana

I'm a fan of natural wonders. I think Iceland is a great place, which has amazing northern lights. As an island, it is also home to many kinds of wildlife. —Harry

Cancún, Mexico, has the bluest ocean I've ever seen. There's so much wonderful wildlife to discover, including sharks and monkeys in the nearby forests. —Andrew

You should consider Stonehenge in England. I went there last summer, and it was so cool! When I finally stood next to those huge, ancient stones, I felt so small. It's hard to imagine how people built it so long ago. —— Mandy

Do you have a favorite place in the world? Write to us at tfkcditors@time.com and tell us why. Your idea may be here next time!

56.Who is a fan of natural wonders? 

A. Diana. B. Harry. C. Andrew. D. Mandy.

57.Where can you see the bluest ocean according to the passage? 

A. In China. B. In Iceland. C. In Mexico. D. In England.

58.What do the Great Wall and Stonehenge have in common?

A. They are both in Asian countries. 

B. They are both home to amazing wildlife. 

C. They are both famous for natural beauty. 

D. They are both man-made ancient wonders.

B

Patrick Finnegan, a 12-year-old student from Savannah, Georgia, is popular in his school as a young peacemaker. He helps other students solve their conflicts.

It all started when Patrick noticed one problem—small disagreements between students often grew into bigger arguments, leaving everyone upset. He wanted to solve conflicts between his classmates and help them get along better. So, Patrick joined a three-day training program to learn the skills of mediation. He learned how to listen with patience, ask the right questions, and help others express their feelings without anger.

His first real test came when two friends in his class, Leo and Mia, stopped speaking to each other after a misunderstanding about a piece of group work. Patrick invited them to a quiet corner during lunchtime. He didn't take sides. Instead, he encouraged each of them to explain what happened and how they felt. At first, both were angry at each other, but Patrick's calm and fair mediation helped them listen to each other. In the end, they realized it was just a miscommunication. They apologized and even decided to work together on the next group work.

Since then, Patrick has helped many other students. He doesn't see conflicts as problems but as chances to build stronger friendships. Through mediation, he has learned to be more understanding. "Success isn't about who's right or wrong," Patrick says, "it's about helping people understand each other and stay friends."

59.Why did Patrick join a three-day training program? 

A. To learn mediation skills. 

B. To get better grades. 

C. To notice small disagreements. 

D. To win an award at school.

60.How did Patrick help Leo and Mia solve their conflict? 

A. He treated them to lunch. 

B. He told them who was right. 

C. He helped them communicate. 

D. He asked the teacher for help.

61.What has Patrick learned through mediation? 

A. How to win arguments. 

B. How to be more understanding. 

C. How to be more popular at school. 

D. How to avoid conflicts completely.

C

Have you ever noticed the green cabinets on the streets of Futian, Shenzhen? They are 24-hour free food banks. Anyone can receive free bread, vegetables, milk, or fruit by making an appointment through the "i Shenzhen" app.

The free-food-bank project operates in a smart and well-organized way. In the past, large supermarkets and bread shops often threw away unsold food that was close to its expiry date. Now, with the government's support, these businesses are connected to the project. They donate food that is close to its expiry date to the food banks. All donated food is stored under strict temperature control to make sure of its safety.

To keep order and protect people's dignity, the project uses an appointment system. There are no volunteers handing out food in person. Users must book online first, which helps reduce crowding and avoid any possible embarrassment. The project also follows a special "8 o'clock rule." Before 8 p.m., the service is mainly for groups like poor families, people with disabilities and street cleaners. After 8 p.m., if food remains, all 20 million citizens of Shenzhen can make an appointment. In this way, receiving food is not only an act of getting help, but also a meaningful step toward environmental protection and reducing food waste.

The project was started in May 2022. Until now, it has received 484,000 donations, supported 484,000 people, and saved about 195 tons of food. The greatness of a city is shown not by its tall buildings, but by its warmth and care to those in need.

62.How does the food banks get the food? 

A. Supermarkets sell it. 

B. Businesses donate it. 

C. The government provides it. 

D. The charity organization raises it.

63.What is the main reason for using appointments in the project? 

A. To make the service faster. 

B. To collect information of its users. 

C. To make sure of the safety of food. 

D. To keep order and protect people's dignity.

64.Which is correct about the "8 o'clock rule"? 

A. After 8 p.m., the cabinets are closed. 

B. After 8 p.m., volunteers begin to work. 

C. Before 8 p.m., all citizens can make appointments. 

D. Before 8 p.m., the service is mainly for special groups.

65.What is the positive effect of the free-food-bank project? 

A. It creates more volunteer jobs. 

B. It helps businesses sell more food. 

C. It helps people and reduces waste. 

D. It makes Shenzhen the greatest city.

D

Many middle school students feel rushed all the time as they try to balance schoolwork, hobbies, housework, and time with friends. If your days often seem messy or out of control, don't worry. With a few practical tips, you can manage your day more effectively.

First, start small. For many people, getting started is the hardest step towards finishing a task. Instead of waiting for the perfect moment, take the first step bravely. A small beginning lowers the pressure and often leads to real progress.

Second, break big tasks into small parts. You may find that you can focus on almost anything for just 25 minutes. Set a timer and work with full attention. Then take a five-minute break before starting the next round. This simple cycle can make difficult tasks feel possible.

Third, make unpleasant tasks more enjoyable. If you have to do something you don't like, try pairing it with something you do enjoy. For example, you can listen to your favorite songs while washing the dishes. By doing so, you turn boring chores into more pleasant moments.

In addition, choose an organizing method that suits you. The best method is the one that truly works for you. Some students prefer colorful sticky notes or phone reminders, but you may work better with a simple to-do list. This is because every time you cross a task off your list, you get a sense of accomplishment and feel proud of yourself.

Finally, remember that learning self-management takes time and practice. If you forget something or make a mistake, treat yourself with kindness. Studies show that being kind to yourself can help you feel less stressed and become stronger when facing difficulties.

Managing your day is about step-by-step progress, not perfection. Try one of these tips today, and you will soon feel calmer, more focused, and more in control.

66.What is the hardest part of finishing a task for many people? 

A. Taking the first step. 

B. Lowering the pressure. 

C. Working with full attention. 

D. Waiting for the perfect moment.

67.If you have to do something you don't like, what can you do?

A. Try to finish it as quickly as possible. 

B. Break the task into small parts. 

C. Do something you enjoy while doing it. 

D. Give yourself a gift after finishing it.

68.What does the underlined word "accomplishment" in Paragraph 5 mean? 

A. Peace. B. Humor. C. Agreement. D. Achievement.

69.Which of the following would the writer probably agree with? 

A. Big tasks should be done without any breaks. 

B. Being kind to yourself can help reduce stress. 

C. You should be hard on yourself if you make mistakes. 

D. Using phone reminders is the best way to stay organized.

70.What is the best title for the text? 

A. Ways to Manage Your Own Day 

B. Causes of Students' Busy Days 

C. Tools for Remembering Daily Tasks 

D. Studies on How to Reduce Stress

第二节 阅读表达（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）

阅读下面短文，简略回答问题。

Have you ever seen a robot that looks and moves like a real person? These machines are called humanoid robots. They are designed to help people in daily life and at work.

In China, humanoid robots are developing rapidly. Last year, a humanoid robot developed by Agibot set a Guinness World Record—the longest walk by a humanoid robot. It set off from Suzhou on November 10 and arrived in Shanghai on November 13. Can you believe that it walked 106 kilometers without stopping? How amazing!

However, walking is only one of the many things humanoid robots can do. Over the past year, they have developed a lot of different skills. Some can make coffee, fold clothes, play mahjong, sell hamburgers, and even carry out safety patrols. These abilities show the rapid growth of China's robotics industry. At present, there are more than 150 robot companies in China, and experts say that the country's humanoid robot market could reach $3.4 billion by 2030.

Humanoid robots depend on key technologies such as high-level sensors and AI systems. With these technologies, they can work in different fields. For example, Walker S1 robots developed by UBTECH are already working in several Chinese car factories. At the same time, researchers are trying to make these robots less expensive. In the future, humanoid robots may become as common as smartphones, playing an increasingly important role in our everyday lives.

71.Why are humanoid robots designed?

__________________________________________________________________

72.What Guinness World Record did a humanoid robot set?

__________________________________________________________________

73.What do the humanoid robots' abilities show? __________________________________________________________________

74.Where are the Walker S1 robots working now? __________________________________________________________________

75.If you own a humanoid robot, what will you ask it to do?

__________________________________________________________________

第四部分 情景交际（满分 10 分）

补全对话（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）

根据下面的对话情景，在空白处填入一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。

(Wendy and Nick are talking during the break in the classroom.)

Nick: Hi, Wendy! May Day is coming. Do you have any plans?

Wendy: Not really. Maybe I'll just stay home and play games. 76________

Nick: I plan to go to Tangshan Zoo. You know how much I love animals.

Wendy: Cool! 77________

Nick: I want to see pandas!

Wendy: They are very cute. Can I go with you?

Nick: 78________ We'll have fun together.

Wendy: Great! 79________

Nick: Let's meet at 8:00 am. The zoo will be crowded on holidays.

Wendy: Perfect! I'll bring your favorite sandwiches for you.

Nick: 80________

Wendy: You're welcome.

第五部分 写作（满分 15 分）

81. 学校校报以 “Sports Make Us Strong and Happy” 为题征稿，呼吁同学们积极参与体育运动，请你撰写一篇短文投稿。

要点：

(1) 运动的好处：强身健体，愉悦身心……；

(2) 你平时的运动习惯；

(3) 你未来的运动计划。

注意：

(1) 短文须包括所给要点，可适当发挥；

(2) 文中不得出现真实的人名、校名和地名；

(3) 词数 80 个左右。

Sports Make Us Strong and Happy

____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Sports Make Us Strong and Happy

Sports play an important role in our life. They not only build up our bodies and keep us healthy, but also cheer us up and make our life more colorful.

I really enjoy doing sports. I keep running for thirty minutes every day after school.

To keep this good habit, I plan to keep running every day in the future. I will also take part in running races to challenge myself. I hope everyone can stick to sports and become stronger and happier.